# Pot odds in 4bet pot

Greetings and respect.

Please guide how to solve the following problem:

The pot is \$80 and the opponent has bet \$40 and we 3-bet \$100 and the opponent has 4-bet \$220:

What is the percentage of the opponent’s 4 bets compared to the pot?

What are our pot odds?

Thank you

Pot 80 + 40 bet + 100 equals pot 220, 4 bet of 220 means they bet full pot or 100%

Your pot odds will depend on ur Holding (ur cards) vs Theirs

Best of luck

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As far as I know, our pot odds depend on the amount of the opponent’s raise relative to the total pot.

That is, if the opponent raises 100% of the pot, then according to the table below, our pot odds should be 33%. what is your opinion?

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Yes u are correct

Ur “Odds to win” the pot will then be determined by ur holdings and outs needed to complete a winning hand

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Also, the ratio of the opponent’s 4 bets to the total pot cannot be 100%.

Because if it is 100%, then our pot odds should be 1 to 2, but our pot odds are not 1 to 2

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Ur question was about the 4 bet for 220 which was full pot

It is not a full pot. Because if it was, we should have 1 to 2 pot odds, but we don’t

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Yea it was the pot was 220 and they bet 220 so full pot

This is going no where so I am out have a great day and best of luck at the tables

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Agree and cornfused lol, but remember I am only at level 3 of the thinking levels! GL at the table everyone!!

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Also have a nice day. But the opponent’s 4-bet is not a full pot. If it was, our pot odds should have been 1 to 2

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He may have matched the amount already in the pot but it is not a pot size bet. A percentage of their bet is actually calling your 3 bet of 100 so he only bet 120. In order for it to be considered a pot raise he would need to call your 100 and then raise by the amount in the pot so 80 + 40 + your 3 bet of 100 + his call of your 100 for a 320 raise. His bet would need to be 420 (100 to call your 3 bet + 320 bet) if he pot bet.

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The ratio of 4 bets to the total pot is 64% because:

(Note that we want to know what percentage of the opponent’s 4 bets is of the total pot. So, from the opponent’s point of view, we must calculate the total pot)

According to the formula, the total pot is: 3 times the opponent’s bet + the amount of the pot before the opponent’s bet

(here, since we are counting from the point of view of 4 bettors, so we are the opponent and we had raised to \$100)

(Actually, we did not raise 100 dollars, first we called 40 dollars and then raise 60 dollars. So our raise is 60 dollars)

(60*3) + 40 + 40 + 80 = 160 + 180 = 340 is the total pot

Now he has 4-bet \$220, so 220 divided by 340 is 64%

That means he has 4-bet 64% of the pot.

Our pot odds are also 1 to 2.7 or 27%. Because:

\$80 was in the pot + opponent raised \$40 + (we called him \$40 and then raised \$60) + (opponent called us \$60 and then raised \$160)

as a result:
The total pot is 440 and we have to call 160 dollars. It means 160 to 440 or 1 to 2.7 which is 27%

What is your opinion? Are my calculations wrong?

thank you

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Risk/ Reward = Pot Odds : Risk=Amount to Call (160) / Reward = Pot size after they bet (440)
160/440 = 36%. (1 to 2.7 is actual 37% BTW not 27% so that calc was wrong ).

160/(440+160) or 160/600 is 27% for the total pot but winning back your own money is not a reward it is an opportunity cost. So you need 27% equity or more to make the call.

(I looked it up on the internet lol)

If we want to convert 1 to 2.7 into a percentage, we must add one unit to 2.7. That is, divide 1 by 3.7, which is 27% (or 26%, it doesn’t matter).

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I guess Phill Helmuth was wrong. I’m out

@hadi10 , welcome to the forum, sorry but my least liked subject was math !!!. Love playing the games on Replay, just enjoying the fellowship and games

You’re correct, except pot odds are expressed the other way around, ie Total Pot to Bet Size or 2.7:1 in this case. Also 27% does not really represent “pot odds as a percentage”, rather the equity required to call, given those pot odds. You are correct that the required equity is 160 / (440 + 160) = 1 / (2.7 +1.0) though.

That’s because you get your bet back too if you win, so that is indeed part of the reward.

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Also, \$220 is actual a 57% pot sized raise.

Similar to the logic you used above, the villain has not actually raised \$220, they really have called \$60, then raised \$160. The \$60 call needs to be added to the total pot before calculating the raise %, so you end up with 160 / 280 = 57%

As a formula that would be (Bet Size - Last Raise) / (Pot + Last Raise)
Pot in this case already includes your raise to \$60, but if you take that out, then you get:
(Bet Size - Last Raise) / (Pot before last raise + 2 * Last Raise)
If you set that equal to 1 (for a pot size bet), you can see it equals 3 * Last Raise + Pot before last raise, which is where that equation comes from

I find it useful to try and remember that pot percentages for raises are about the size of the raise, not the size of the bet. They’re only the same thing for the first bet on each street.

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Guys, It’s a pot sized bet, but the pot odds are 1:2. I could say you’re both sorta right, but I’m just going to say you’re both wrong.

I didn’t understand that if you say the total pot is 280, then if the opponent 4bets to \$280 we should get 1 to 2 pot odds. But if we calculate, we get 1 to 2.2 pot odds.